[B-Greek] ANAKALUPTW an impersonal verb? re. 2 Cor 3:14

mrt mrt at hisurfer.net
Wed Dec 10 18:53:57 EST 2003


A few have taken the ptc. from the root ANAKALUPTW as an accusative absolute (acc. abs.) in 2 Cor 3:14.  I've search the archives here and elsewhere and seen various discussions on the acc. abs.  And have seen the Greek experts say that an acc. abs. only occurs with an impersonal verb.  But my questions are: 
 

Is this an impersonal or personal verb?  Is there ANY example from Classical Greek or Hellenistic of the above ptc. taken as an acc. abs.?

 

What I'm really considering is if there is much legitimacy to argue for an acc. abs. here, so any discussion directly related will be welcomed. I've seen B-D-F and Symth's grammar.

 

 

Michael Tarver

mrt at hisurfer.net


<'\\><  laus Deo


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