[B-Greek] Ioudaioon
Jason Hare
jason at hareplay.com
Wed Dec 17 00:24:55 EST 2003
It's not surprising that you do not distinguish. To be sure, the Hebrew
would be the same for both (Yehudi). Judah (Yehudah) is the root of the
word. The thing is that by NT times, all Jewish people were "Judean" because
they all proceeded from the remnant of the Southern Kingdom (Judah). Kinda
makes sense when viewed this way. Does this help?
Regards,
Jason Hare
Missouri Southern State University
----- Original Message -----
From: "Carol Dempster" <optomoko at ihug.co.nz>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, December 16, 2003 10:45 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Ioudaioon
I have consulted my rather rusty Mounce, but am still not sure if Ioudaioon
( as in Matt.27:37 and other gospels) can mean either Judean or Jewish. Can
someone help? Thanks.
Carol Dempster
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