[B-Greek] Newbie question on 1 John 1:10 OFFLIST
Raymond Regalado
fwgk5942 at mb.infoweb.ne.jp
Fri Dec 19 12:21:58 EST 2003
On 2003.12.20, at 02:05 AM, Maurice A. O'Sullivan wrote:
> At 16:02 19/12/2003, you wrote:
>
>
> 1 Jn 1:10 says, "PSEUSTHN POIOUMEN AUTON..." I'm just wondering why
> there seems to be two direct objects (PSEUSTHN and AUTON, both in the
> accusative) in this construction and I'd appreciate your help. I just
> can't seem to remember the relevant grammatical rule here and I'd
> appreciate it if you could also refer me to some section of Machen or
> Summers or Wallace that would explain this to me. I kind of think a
> preposition is required here (e.g. "EIS PSEUSTHN...") Thank you very
> much.
>
>
> Raymond:
> I think you may be confusing the rule about AUTON -- depending on its
> position, it can mean the SAME man or the man HIMSELF.
>
> But this does not arise here -- the grammar is simple and
> straightforward: >> we make AUTON [ = him ] a liar -- just two
> accusative, one the object (AUTON), the other which says something
> about hime ( liar 0.
>
> Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics:
Maurice,
Thanks. My problem is that I haven't progressed "beyond the basics".
I've only done "first-year Greek" (and in 3 months at that!), and I
don't remember studying anything about no "double accusative", and even
the basic rules still need some time to sink into my brain.
Blessings,
Raymond Regalado
Tokyo, Japan
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