[B-Greek] Newbie question on 1 John 1:10 OFFLIST

Raymond Regalado fwgk5942 at mb.infoweb.ne.jp
Fri Dec 19 12:21:58 EST 2003


On 2003.12.20, at 02:05  AM, Maurice A. O'Sullivan wrote:

> At 16:02 19/12/2003, you wrote:
>  
>
> 1 Jn 1:10 says, "PSEUSTHN POIOUMEN AUTON..."  I'm just wondering why 
> there seems to be two direct objects (PSEUSTHN and AUTON, both in the 
> accusative) in this construction and I'd appreciate your help.  I just 
> can't seem to remember the relevant grammatical rule here and I'd 
> appreciate it if you could also refer me to some section of Machen or 
> Summers or Wallace that would explain this to me.  I kind of think a 
> preposition is required here (e.g. "EIS PSEUSTHN...") Thank you very 
> much.
>
>
> Raymond:
> I think you may be confusing the rule about AUTON -- depending on its 
> position, it can mean the SAME man or the man HIMSELF.
>
> But this does not arise here -- the grammar is simple and 
> straightforward: >> we make AUTON [ = him ] a liar -- just two 
> accusative, one the object (AUTON), the other which says something 
> about hime ( liar 0.
>
> Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: 

Maurice,

Thanks.  My problem is that I haven't progressed "beyond the basics".  
I've only done "first-year Greek" (and in 3 months at that!), and I 
don't remember studying anything about no "double accusative", and even 
the basic rules still need some time to sink into my brain.

Blessings,

Raymond Regalado
Tokyo, Japan



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