[B-Greek] Luke 1:31a
waldo slusher
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Sun Dec 21 14:19:31 EST 2003
> > KAI IDOU SULLHMYHi EN GASTRI KAI TEXHi hUION
> >
> > SULLHMYHi is future tense, like TEXHi. So why does
> > Mary respond as if she is already pregnant?
>
> She does not. V. 34 also has a future verb: PWS
> ESTAI TOUTO;
> It is not until v. 38 that she gives her consent for
> this to happen to her.
It would be less ambiguous to include all of V. 34 in
this answer, since the final clarifying question is
most helpful in understanding the question (Iver
sites) that immediately preceeds it. How can this be?
How shall what be? Mary understands IN THE FUTURE she
would give birth, but she likewise understands the
angel to mean that she is currently pregnant (Present
Tense of GINWSKW). That is why Mary's question at the
end of V. 34 does NOT contain a Future tense. Her
bewilderment is based on the fact that she currently
was in a state of not knowing a man.
The angel then explains HOW this will come about SINCE
Mary is in a current state of not knowing a man. No
man SHALL (in the future) become involved... this much
Mary understood. But there was nothing Gabriel said
that did not preclude the Spirit from intervening.
=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AB
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