[B-Greek] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8)
Eric Weiss
eweiss at gte.net
Wed Dec 24 01:00:30 EST 2003
I was hoping my query would focus on the Greek text,
and not devolve into arguments over Christ's deity. I know
my question COULD become a springboard to such
discussions, but I solely wanted to ask two things,
as I stated in my questions. So let me clarify by
restating them:
1. Did John possibly use the construction MONOGENHS
QEOS hO WN EIS TON KOLPON TOU PATROS because
of the verbal link with Exodus 3:14?
Iver, I'm NOT asking a textual question, because the text
is not in doubt; I offered hOS ESTIN as an ALTERNATIVE
that basically, I think, means the same thing, only in order
to suggest what John COULD have written, but didn't. What
he DID choose to write (and the hO WN is not in doubt, and
I am NOT asking re: QEOS vs. hUIOS) is the basis for my
question re: if hO WN is sufficiently unusual here to
suggest that John was possibly making an allusion to
Exodus 3:14 since he did NOT write hOS ESTIN or another
Phrase that could mean the same thing.
B-Greek has dealt at length in the past with whether or
not John 8:58 (or other verses) is a reference to Ex. 3:14
and/or if EGW EIMI ascribes deity to Christ or refers to
Ex. 3:14. I am NOT asking that question here. I am simply
asking if John's writing hO WN as opposed to, say, hOS
ESTIN, is in the mind of Johannine readers or scholars on
this list or elsewhere a possible allusion to Ex. 3:14, or if it
could be such an allusion. If John frequently uses hO
WN in place of hOS ESTIN elsewhere, then that would
possibly negate the probability that such is the case here.
2. My second question was re: the possible verbal
connection between John 1:7 and 1:8, and hopefully
won't also veer off from what I am asking.
- -
I don't want to argue beyond the POSSIBILITY that what
John wrote in 1:18b might be an allusion to Ex. 3:14. If we
can establish or somewhat agree that it COULD BE an
allusion to Ex. 3:14, I don't want my question to go any
further in terms of using it debate on this list the deity or
non-deity, equality with God or non-equality with God, of
Jesus.
And, conversely, if it can be shown grammatically and by
John's or other NT writers' use of the term(s) that 1:18b
cannot be, or very likely cannot be, an allusion to Ex. 3:14,
that will also address and answer my question.
- - -
Eric S. Weiss
eweiss at gte.net
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