[B-Greek] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8)

Eric Weiss eweiss at gte.net
Wed Dec 24 01:00:30 EST 2003


I was hoping my query would focus on the Greek text, 
and not devolve into arguments over Christ's deity. I know 
my question COULD become a springboard to such 
discussions, but I solely wanted to ask two things, 
as I stated in my questions. So let me clarify by 
restating them:
 
1. Did John possibly use the construction MONOGENHS 
QEOS hO WN EIS TON KOLPON TOU PATROS because 
of the verbal link with Exodus 3:14?
 
Iver, I'm NOT asking a textual question, because the text 
is not in doubt; I offered hOS ESTIN as an ALTERNATIVE 
that basically, I think, means the same thing, only in order 
to suggest what John COULD have written, but didn't. What 
he DID choose to write (and the hO WN is not in doubt, and 
I am NOT asking re: QEOS vs. hUIOS) is the basis for my 
question re: if hO WN is sufficiently unusual here to 
suggest that John was possibly making an allusion to 
Exodus 3:14 since he did NOT write hOS ESTIN or another 
Phrase that could mean the same thing.
 
B-Greek has dealt at length in the past with whether or 
not John 8:58 (or other verses) is a reference to Ex. 3:14 
and/or if EGW EIMI ascribes deity to Christ or refers to 
Ex. 3:14. I am NOT asking that question here. I am simply 
asking if John's writing hO WN as opposed to, say, hOS 
ESTIN, is in the mind of Johannine readers or scholars on 
this list or elsewhere a possible allusion to Ex. 3:14, or if it 
could be such an allusion. If John frequently uses hO 
WN in place of hOS ESTIN elsewhere, then that would 
possibly negate the probability that such is the case here.
 
2. My second question was re: the possible verbal 
connection between John 1:7 and 1:8, and hopefully 
won't also veer off from what I am asking.
 
- - 
 
I don't want to argue beyond the POSSIBILITY that what 
John wrote in 1:18b might be an allusion to Ex. 3:14. If we 
can establish or somewhat agree that it COULD BE an 
allusion to Ex. 3:14, I don't want my question to go any 
further in terms of using it debate on this list the deity or 
non-deity, equality with God or non-equality with God, of 
Jesus.
 
And, conversely, if it can be shown grammatically and by 
John's or other NT writers' use of the term(s) that 1:18b 
cannot be, or very likely cannot be, an allusion to Ex. 3:14, 
that will also address and answer my question.
 
- - -
Eric S. Weiss
eweiss at gte.net
 



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