[B-Greek] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8)
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Wed Dec 24 01:56:15 EST 2003
In a message dated 12/24/2003 1:01:13 AM Eastern Standard Time,
eweiss at gte.net writes:
> I was hoping my query would focus on the Greek text,
> and not devolve into arguments over Christ's deity. I know
> my question COULD become a springboard to such
> discussions, but I solely wanted to ask two things,
> as I stated in my questions. So let me clarify by
> restating them:
>
> 1. Did John possibly use the construction MONOGENHS
> QEOS hO WN EIS TON KOLPON TOU PATROS because
> of the verbal link with Exodus 3:14?
>
> Iver, I'm NOT asking a textual question, because the text
> is not in doubt; I offered hOS ESTIN as an ALTERNATIVE
> that basically, I think, means the same thing, only in order
> to suggest what John COULD have written, but didn't. What
> he DID choose to write (and the hO WN is not in doubt, and
> I am NOT asking re: QEOS vs. hUIOS) is the basis for my
> question re: if hO WN is sufficiently unusual here to
> suggest that John was possibly making an allusion to
> Exodus 3:14 since he did NOT write hOS ESTIN or another
> Phrase that could mean the same thing.
>
> B-Greek has dealt at length in the past with whether or
> not John 8:58 (or other verses) is a reference to Ex. 3:14
> and/or if EGW EIMI ascribes deity to Christ or refers to
> Ex. 3:14. I am NOT asking that question here. I am simply
> asking if John's writing hO WN as opposed to, say, hOS
> ESTIN, is in the mind of Johannine readers or scholars on
> this list or elsewhere a possible allusion to Ex. 3:14, or if it
> could be such an allusion. If John frequently uses hO
> WN in place of hOS ESTIN elsewhere, then that would
> possibly negate the probability that such is the case here.
>
> 2. My second question was re: the possible verbal
> connection between John 1:7 and 1:8, and hopefully
> won't also veer off from what I am asking.
>
__________
I only know of one (possibly two) way(s) of answering that with any
credibility.
1. Is there anything in the context of the passage which would lead one to
believe that the author had Ex 3.14 in mind?
2. Does the author use this expression elsewhere, and, if so, how does he
use it?
In regard to #1 the usage in the Apocalypse would seem to indicate that the
author had Ex 3.14 in mind when he four times uses the expression
hO WN KAI hO HN [KAI hO ERXOMENOS]
in reference to God, Christ or the Trinity. The question is whether there is
a similar "obviousness" here. I tend to think there is not since hO WN does
not function as an epithet as it does in the Apocalypse. Perhaps someone else
might notice something which would be more determinative.
In regard to #2, the Gospel uses the phrase hO WN six times
a. Jn 1.18
MONOGENHS QEOS hO WN EIS TON KOLPON -- ktl
b. Jn 3.31
ANWQEN ERXOMENOS EPANW PANTWN ESTIN; hO WN EK THS GHS ESTIN KAI EK THS GHS
LALEI. hO EK TOU OURANOU ERXOMENOS -- ktl
c. Jn 6.46
OUX hOTI TON PATERA hEWRAKEN TIS EI MH hO WN PARA TOU QEOU, hOUTOS hEWRAKEN
TON PATERA.
d. Jn 8.47
hO WN EK TOU QEOU TA hRHMATA TOU QEOU AKOUEI; DIA TOUTO hUMEIS OUK AKOUETE,
hOTI EK TOU QEOU OUK ESTE.
e. Jn 12.17
EMARTUREI OUN hO OXLOS hO WN MET' AUTOU hOTE TO LAZARON EFWNHSEN EK TOU
MNHMEIOU KAI HGEIREN AUTON EK NEKRWN.
f. Jn 18.37
. . . PAS hO WN EK THS ALHQEIAS AKOUEI MOU THS FWNHS.
It would appear that most, if not all of these are existential in nature
("the one who is . . . ") and equate those whom it designates with another quality
"the one who is of the earth speaks regarding the earth", "the one who is
from God -- he has seen the Father", "the one who is from God hears the words of
God", "the crowd which were with him . . . bore witness", "every one who is
from the truth hears my voice." Thus it would be hard to argue from the
author's usage that Jn 1.18 should be any different in character.
gfsomsel
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list