[B-Greek] MARIAM in Luke 1:46
Smith William
mashalomcha at yahoo.com
Thu Dec 25 13:09:48 EST 2003
In Luke 1:46, the name MARIAM is undeclinable. Is
there any grammatical reason why it could not be
translated as a dative (and she said to Mary)
instead of a nominative (and Mary said)?
(Im trying to avoid questions as to what parts of
Luke 1:46-55 better fit Mary, what parts fit
Elizabeth, what parts fit neither, as well as
questions of later Latin manuscripts.)
William Smith
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