[B-Greek] MARIAM in Luke 1:46

Smith William mashalomcha at yahoo.com
Thu Dec 25 13:09:48 EST 2003


In Luke 1:46, the name MARIAM is undeclinable. Is
there any grammatical reason why it could not be
translated as a dative (“and she said to Mary”)
instead of a nominative (“and Mary said”)?

(I’m trying to avoid questions as to what parts of
Luke 1:46-55 better fit Mary, what parts fit
Elizabeth, what parts fit neither, as well as
questions of later Latin manuscripts.)

William Smith

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