[B-Greek] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8)

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Fri Dec 26 11:06:03 EST 2003


In a message dated 12/26/2003 10:54:24 AM Eastern Standard Time, 
iver_larsen at sil.org writes:
For the past tense or EIMI (imperfective), the situation is different, since
there is no imperfective participle. Therefore, we find hOS HN much more
commonly than hOS ESTIN. The hO HN in Rev 1:4 etc is, of course, highly
unusual, but I suppose it is poetic licence to invent a non-existent
imperfective "participle".
_______________

Passage

IWANNHS TAIS hEPTA EKKLHSIAIS TAIS EN THi ASIAi:  XARIS hUMIN KAI EIRHNH APO 
hO WN KAI hO HN KAI hO ERXOMENOS KAI APO TWN hEPTA PNEUMATWN hA ENWPION TOU 
QRONOU AUTOU

Iver,

Your comment here puzzles me.  The "klinker" in Re 1.4 is HN precisely 
because it is a 3 p.s. impf. and NOT a participle.  Are you trying to say that this 
is nevertheless a participle which the author invented for this purpose?

gfsomsel



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