[B-Greek] EKBALLEI: simple word in strange context (Mk 1:12)?
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Feb 21 11:11:06 EST 2003
I earnestly hope that Waldo's message will NOT start a thread on what a
commentary should be; if it does, I shall probably have to halt it because
this is all outside the legitimate scope of b-greek discussion. I mentioned
that I was starting work on a commentary on Mark, but I asked a specific
question about a specific Greek word in a specific passage, and I never
intended to launch into any discussion of source critical theories, nor did
I, in mentioning the Lucan and Matthaean differences from Mark with regard
to Mark's EKBALLEI, suggest any reason for the differences; I did, in my
last message on the thread, say something that I think is consistent with
most of what you're saying here, that Mark's gospel text needs to be looked
at for its own sake; if I implied anything by that, it was that whether or
not we view the Matthaean and Lucan versions as texts that Mark shortened
and altered or as texts that are expansions and corrections of what Mark
wrote, the Marcan text ought to be viewed in its own right as telling the
story in Mark's own way; where the Matthaean and Lucan
are useful for one doing this is to show ALTERNATIVE modes of telling the
story; that makes clearer what is distinctive about Mark's story. But I
neither suggested any perspective on the Synoptic question nor do I think
that discussion of that or of what a good commentary OUGHT to be is
appropriate to this list.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.mcsinternet.net/~cwconrad/
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