Participle not conforming in gender?
Suedaleg at aol.com
Suedaleg at aol.com
Fri Jan 24 02:44:04 EST 2003
Dirk and Conrad:
Conrad says:
"The original question raised by Dirk Jongkind concerned the non-agreement
of DEDOMENON with EXOUSIA in John 19:11 OUK EICES EXOUSIAN KAT EMOU
OUDEMIAN EI MH HN DEDOMENON SOI ANWQEN; I think the answer is that we
mustunderstand the infinitive phrase EXOUSIAN ECEIN as the subject of the
pluperfect..."
Please correct me if I'm wrong. Is what you are saying is that the
infinitive ECEIN (and by extension, its object) is the subject of the
participle? My understanding of this is that an infinitive used as a noun is
considered to be neuter. If so then the neuter participle is in aggreement.
Am I correct in this?
Dale Greenlee
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