[B-Greek] Matthwe 18:2 called a little child unto him, Semitic idiom ?
Schmuel
schmuel at escape.com
Sun Jun 8 08:19:16 EDT 2003
Hi b-Greek,
Thanks to Sylvie, Ron, and Jason for their help (some offlist :-)
Though this is somewhat techie (especially to me) I am using it as a textbook
case to try to understand some of the arguments used for Aramaic primacy.
=========
D has the reading:
KAI PROSKALESAMENOS IESOUS PAIDON hEN ESTHSEN...
Ron Fay wrote:
>I'd have a real problem calling this a semitism as I do not recall such syntax being regularly found in the OT (use of "echad" before a verb in order to thematize a noun or else as a modifier of said noun).
Schmuel
Good point.. I think this is called a semiticism largely because it agrees with the two Old Syriac manuscripts, not because of any Tanach usage... so we get into interesting nuances of language (Syriac/Hebrew) as well as time and locale.
(The Middle Ages Matthews, ShemTob and DuTillet are also mentioned, which in my view is largely a circular argument, however if a Latin Vorlage would account for their readings, that would help in the explanation).
DuTillet Hebrew Matthew:
dx) r(nl w#y )rqyw
And Yeshua called to one boy
(a certain boy)
<snip more nuanced but interesting part on the Bezae punctuation>
Shalom,
Steven Avery
Queens, NY
schmuel at escape.com
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