[B-Greek] phagw
Steven R. Lo Vullo
slovullo at mac.com
Sun Mar 9 18:06:19 EST 2003
On Sunday, March 9, 2003, at 04:34 PM, Matthew Miller wrote:
> I should be more specific in my phagw question. I apologize if I did
> not get the transliteration correct -- I think phagw is right. The
> verb I refer to is "to eat." Someone I know has made a theological
> argument based on his assertion that "phagw" is a figurative verb to
> eat, while "esthiw" is a literal verb to eat. I have understood,
> however, that the difference between "phagw" and "esthiw" is more like
> the difference between the English "eat" and "dine." Can anyone clear
> this up for me? Thanks to those who have already replied! Sincerely,
> Matt Miller
Hi Matt:
Actually, neither is correct. Both have the same range of meaning. It's
just that the stem of ESQIW came to be used in the present system
(present and imperfect), while that of FAGW came to be used in the
future and second aorist. So far as I know there are no examples of
ESQIW/FAGW in the aorist passive, perfect active, and perfect passive
in the NT. At any rate, if one wanted to use the present or imperfect
tense, he/she would use ESQIW; if the future or aorist, FAGW.
============
Steven R. Lo Vullo
Madison WI
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