[B-Greek] why the hWN would be expected, but not hO in John 1.3?
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Mar 17 10:40:17 EST 2003
At 10:34 AM -0500 3/17/03, David Lew wrote:
>My b-greek fellows,
>
> In his "The Gospel according to St. John", C. K. Barrett says at p.
>156 that "...and because after OUDE hEN, hWN ( rather than hO) GEGONEN
>would be expected."
>
> I wonder why the hWN would be expected, but not hO?
Unless a respondent has Barrett's commentary ready to hand, it would surely
make it easier to respond if one knew which passage in John's gospel is
under discussion here, or at least if the Greek text--as much of it as is
relevant--could be set forth in transliterated form.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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