[B-Greek] 1 John 1:5
Eric Weiss
eweiss at gte.net
Wed Mar 19 09:11:45 EST 2003
1. N-A 26 text: KAI /ESTIN hAUTH\ hH AGGELIA hHN AKHKOAMEN AP' AUTOU ...
2. per N-A 26 critical note: KAI hAUTH ESTIN hH AGGELIA hHN AKHKOAMEN
AP' AUTOU ... (i.e., switching ESTIN and hAUTH).
Would it be accurate to translate 1. as "And it is this message which we
have heard from him ..." (i.e., treating hAUTH hH AGGELIA as a
near-demonstrative-adjective phrase) and translate 2. as "And this is
the message which we have heard from him ..."? If so, why do most
translations translate this verse as if the Greek read as in 2., when
they no doubt use the N-A 26 text and not the critical variant?
--
Eric S. Weiss
http://home1.gte.net/vzn05pnm/index.htm
S.D.G.
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