[B-Greek] 1 John 1:5

Eric Weiss eweiss at gte.net
Wed Mar 19 11:23:38 EST 2003


But ... if the reading ESTIN hAUTH is accepted and used, is mine an 
acceptable translation, i.e., "And it is THIS message which we have 
heard from him and are proclaiming to you: "God is light ...""? And not 
only acceptable, but preferred as a way of expressing what this reading 
of the Greek is saying?

> >
> > 1. N-A 26 text: KAI /ESTIN hAUTH\ hH AGGELIA hHN AKHKOAMEN AP' AUTOU ...
> >
> > 2. per N-A 26 critical note: KAI hAUTH ESTIN hH AGGELIA hHN AKHKOAMEN
> > AP' AUTOU ... (i.e., switching ESTIN and hAUTH).
> >
> > Would it be accurate to translate 1. as "And it is this message which we
> > have heard from him ..." (i.e., treating hAUTH hH AGGELIA as a
> > near-demonstrative-adjective phrase) and translate 2. as "And this is
> > the message which we have heard from him ..."? If so, why do most
> > translations translate this verse as if the Greek read as in 2., when
> > they no doubt use the N-A 26 text and not the critical variant?
>
> When hOUTOS is used kataphorically as here,
> it simply does not make sense to have the order ESTIN hAUTH.
> Your alternative translation: "And it IS this message which we have heard
> from him and we proclaim to you that God is light..." does not make sense
> either when we look at the whole sentence.
>
>

-- 
Eric S. Weiss
http://home1.gte.net/vzn05pnm/index.htm
S.D.G.




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