[B-Greek] adverbial participle
vanepps
vanepps at attbi.com
Thu Mar 27 13:50:09 EST 2003
I am translating Galatians and came across an adverbial perfect participle
at 2:16, and in looking in Wallace's Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (p. 631
n. 47) noticed that he contests that the adverbial perfect participle is
almost always causal. Is this "almost always" dependent on context or
dependent upon some other grammatical structure? Why is this one not
generally translated as a causal? Can someone please send me in the right
direction as far as reading material goes on the adverbial perfect
participle? And perhaps breakdown the rational behind the Synoptic writers
use of ojida (Mk 12:24 or Lk 8:53) as causal and why Paul's use of this same
lexim in Gal 2:16 is not. I would appreciate it very much.
May God Bless,
--
Cameron VanEpps
215 W. Illinois St.
Bellingham, WA 98225
phone: (360) 715-8873
cell: (360) 319-6653
e-mail: vanepps at attbi.com
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