[B-Greek] adverbial participle

Clwinbery at aol.com Clwinbery at aol.com
Thu Mar 27 19:21:32 EST 2003


In a message dated 3/27/03 1:00:26 PM, vanepps at attbi.com writes:

>I am translating Galatians and came across an adverbial perfect participle
>at 2:16, and in looking in Wallace's Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (p.
>631
>n. 47) noticed that he contests that the adverbial perfect participle is
>almost always causal. Is this "almost always" dependent on context or
>dependent upon some other grammatical structure? Why is this one not
>generally translated as a causal? Can someone please send me in the right
>direction as far as reading material goes on the adverbial perfect
>participle? And perhaps breakdown the rational behind the Synoptic writers
>use of ojida (Mk 12:24 or Lk 8:53) as causal and why Paul's use of this
>same
>lexim in Gal 2:16 is not. I would appreciate it very much.
>
The verse is given here:

hOTE DE HLQEN KHFAS EIS ANTIOCEIAN, KATA PROSWPON AUTWi ANTESTHN, hOTI 
KATEGNWSMENOS HN.

That which indicates "cause" here is the subordinating conjunction hOTI. The 
pluperfect is a periphrastic form that indicates an existing state during a 
past time. At the time of the incounter in Antioch Peter was in a situation 
of having been blamed. Many will translate it as "worthy" of blame, but I 
think it can mean that the Gentile Christians had placed blame on him for 
"caving" in to the Jerusalem Christians.

Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College


More information about the B-Greek mailing list