[B-Greek] Verbal nouns

mark lama markosl80 at yahoo.com
Thu May 8 10:49:15 EDT 2003


In Mark 4:2 there is an interesting example of a regular first-declension noun being used in the same sense, as it seems to me, that one would use the articular infinitive. The relevent text runs as follows: (4:1) KAI... HRXATO DIDASKEIN... (4:2) KAI EDIDASKEN AUTOUS... KAI ELEGEN AUTOIS EN TH DIDACH AUTOU. Notice that the same sense is preserved if one substitutes for the last phrase a phrase with the articular infinitive: KAI ELEGEN AUTOIS EN TWi DIDASKEIN [AUTON]. Compare a similar construction in the very next verses, Mark 4:3,4: EXHLQEN hO SPEIRWN TOU SPEIRAI: KAI EGENETO EN TWi SPEIREIN... One of the senses defined for DIDACH is, "Teaching, the act of teaching." Evidently in this sense it is or can be as much of a verbal noun as the infinitive. Of course, the equivalent noun in English is a noun in '-ing', i.e., also a verbal noun. This is grammatically mind-opening to me. Evidently, when one wants to treat a verbal idea in a nominal way, e.g., construed with a preposition, one has at least two options: 1) Use the non-finite verb; 2) Use a 'regular' declinable noun derived from the verbal stem, where one that maintains the verbal idea is available.  Another NT example of a noun used in this way is, I think, ARCH. Cf Php. 4:15: EN ARXH TOU EUAGGELIOU... which could be translated, "When the Gospel was making a beginning." The English noun 'beginning' is parallel in its formation as well to 'teaching'. My question is, is my analysis here basically sound? 

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