[B-Greek] Mark 2:28

James Ernest jdemail at charter.net
Fri Nov 7 00:00:02 EST 2003


Bert,

This is interesting. Seems to me your translation is entirely possible
except for the Markan context. Separating the genitive from the noun it
depends on in that way would seem to me to belong to a more elevated
style than Mark's. But mainly the reader is going to recognize UIOS TOU
ANQRWPOU as belonging together as a stock phrase, as earlier in 2:10.
Plus KURIOS TOU ANQRWPOU doesn't particularly make sense; if it's not
part of the stock phrase UIOS TOU ANQRWPOU, then ANQRWPOU would seem to
be the same ANQRWPOS as in v. 27. But if Mark had wanted to say "the Son
is Lord both of man and of the sabbath" I think he would have put a KAI
before ANQRWPOU; but clearly the point here is his lordship over the
sabbath, not over people, so he didn't want to say that. Also, absolute
HO HUIOS seems more Johannine than Markan; I don't think Mark uses HO
HUIOS without adj. or genitive modifier for Jesus. But again, it's
interesting to see what a different reading you can get with just a
little gestalt switch. The first translation isn't wrong because of a
grammatical rule. Also shows how right reading isn't a matter of
individual sentences.

James

--------------------------------
James D. Ernest, Ph.D., Editor
Baker Academic
+1 616 891 5625 (office)
jernest at bakerbooks.com
--------------------------------




> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org 
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of 
> bertdehaan at gosympatico.ca
> Sent: Thursday, November 06, 2003 9:56 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [B-Greek] Mark 2:28
> 
> 
> hWSTE KURIOS ESTIN hO hUIOS TOU ANQRWPOU KAI TOU SABBATOU
> I first translated this verse as follows: So the Son is lord 
> of man and of the Sabbath. Then I recognized the passage and 
> I realized that it was: So the Son of man is lord even of the 
> Sabbath. I can see that hUIOS TOU ANQRWPOU logically belong 
> together but I don't know a grammatical rule why my first 
> translation is wrong. What would the Greek look like if it 
> meant; So the Son is lord of man and of the Sabbath.
> 
> Thank you.
> Bert de Haan.
> 
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