[B-Greek] Hebrew to Greek

Rbsads at aol.com Rbsads at aol.com
Sat Oct 11 10:00:30 EDT 2003


Here are two passages from the Jerusalem Perspective newsletter. The points 
seem quite interesting. I would like to read some comments from the list on the 
accuracy, methodology, and conclusions presented in the quoted passages.

I have tried to convert the Greek words into the BGreek transliteration 
scheme. The Hebrew, I have left in italics as in the original newsletter. Also, I 
have taken the below quotes out of the newsletter, omitting some of the 
original material that is between the parts quoted.  So if the quoted passages do not 
flow, it is because of my editing.

from Jerusalem Perspective Pipeline, dated 10/2003

(first passage regarding MT 13:17 and LK 10:24)

"In a beautiful statement that probably referred to the Kingdom of Heaven, 
Jesus proclaimed to his disciples, according to Luke, that "many prophets and 
kings" had desired to see and hear what they (his disciples) were seeing and 
hearing. Matthew recorded the same saying, but in Matthew's account the doublet 
is, "prophets and righteous persons."

Did Jesus say "prophets and kings" or "prophets and righteous 
persons"?"Kings" is not a usual Hebrew synonym for "prophets." 

Matthew's version of the saying also has its difficulties. Like "kings," 
"righteous persons" (tsadikim in Hebrew) is not a Hebrew synonym for "prophets." 

What, then, are the synonyms for "prophets" (nevi'im) in Hebrew? Since their 
Greek texts are so full of Hebrew idioms, we need look no further than the 
Gospels themselves to find an answer to that question. For example, in Jesus' 
lament over Jerusalem, he exclaimed, "Jerusalem, Jerusalem, killing the prophets 
and stoning those who have been sent to her."  In this sentence, the phrase 
"those who have been sent" stands in parallel to "prophets." Another Hebrew 
synonym for "prophets" is malachim (Greek ANGELOI; messengers, sent ones). 

It appears that in the transmission of Jesus' saying (Lk. 10:24), the word 
"kings" replaced the word "messengers." Written or spoken, the Greek words 
BASILEIS (kings) and ANGELOI (messengers) are not similar; however, the Hebrew 
words melachim (kings) and malachim (messengers) are quite similar, especially to 
the eye. Therefore, it is probable that a misreading of "messengers" occurred 
as the word was being copied in Hebrew. Since there are examples of it in the 
biblical Masoretic text, undoubtedly this scribal error is possible in Hebrew.

It is less probable, although possible, that the transmission error occurred 
as the biography of Jesus was being translated to Greek. The Greek translator 
could have seen malachim in a Hebrew scroll and misread it as melachim. Or, 
alternatively, if the translator was aided by a reader who dictated the text to 
him, the assistant could have misread the text. There also is a slight 
possibility that, as the assistant dictated the Hebrew text, the translator misheard 
malachim as melachim"

(second passage regarding Mt 6:22-23)

"There are many enigmatic Gospel passages about which we can feel much more 
confidence regarding its original wording. (Of course, relative certainty about 
a passage's original wording does not guarantee an understanding of its depth 
of meaning.) Matthew 6:22-23 reads, literally: "The lamp of the body is the 
eye; therefore, if your eye is simple, your whole body will be shining. But if 
your eye is bad, your whole body will be dark...." Surprisingly, this saying 
is not couched in idiomatic Greek, but in lovely, first-century Hebrew. The 
saying's word order and idioms point to a Hebrew predecessor, especially the 
idiom "bad eye," which in Hebrew refers to stinginess in giving to the poor. 
Because we know bad eye's Hebrew opposite, we can restore the puzzling "simple 
eye"--neither idiomatic Greek nor Hebrew--with a degree of confidence. In Hebrew 
the opposites of ayin ra'ah (bad eye) are the idioms ayin tovah (good eye) and 
ayin yafah (beautiful eye), both of which refer to generosity in the giving of 
alms to the poor."

The first passage seems to make reasonable use of some of the principles of 
textual criticism to explain possible transmission errors in the Luke version. 
Both passages in Matthew might be explained as Mattean redactions.

And I am sure that much discussion on these points will beyond the scope of 
BGreek. Perhaps a couple exchanges, if anyone has comment, might be allowed.

Thanks,

Richard Smith
Chattanooga, TN

    

















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