[B-Greek] Infinitive case

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Oct 18 17:36:20 EDT 2003


At 2:24 PM -0700 10/18/03, Mitch Larramore wrote:
>I read where this Infinitive was in the Genitive case.
>
>OUKETI EIMI AXIOS KLHQHNAI hUIOS SOU (Lk 15:19)
>
>Why would a Infinitive have a case?

Perhaps because an infinitive is a verbal noun, neuter singular, often with
the article TO; frequently we see in Koine the genitive articular
infinitive (e.g. TOU PROSEUCESQAI, "in order to pray") with an implicit
postposed hENEKA used to express purpose. One might argue that KLHQHNAI in
the above verse is genitive because AXIOS commonly takes a genitive
complement, but without a genitive article, I don't know that I'd
characterize the infinitive here as a genitive, but simply exegetical with
the adjective AXIOS.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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