[B-Greek] petros and petras
Jeffrey B. Gibson
jgibson000 at comcast.net
Fri Sep 5 13:23:16 EDT 2003
Granby at SAFe-mail.net wrote:
> Since PETROS and PETRA have a clear historical difference in meaning is not the burden of proof on those who wish to say that they have changed their meaning to become synonomous? Is there any evidence for this other than the passages under discussion in koine manuscripts pre and concurrent with the NT?
>
> Also, for those interested the following website makes a case for the distinction between these words.
>
> http://www.graceway.org/articles/article_017.html
>
> There argument is based on the meaning of KE'PHA' and SHU`A' in aramaic. According to the information they provide, the most correct translation of KE'PHA' is PETROS and PETRA would be the most correct translation for SHU`A'. (I do not know aramaic but found there argument convincing).
>
Ummm ... at the risk of breaking boundaries here, I feel compelled to ask, since the issue implicit here is one of the authority of the source you appeal to: How trustworthy is an an article that makes its foil "the Church of Rome" and intimates that "Rome" is the only source for, or advocate of the view,
the author of the page (Pastor David Th. Stark) is combating?.
Yours,
JG
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
Chicago, IL 60626
jgibson000 at comcast.net
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