[B-Greek] petros and petras
furuli at online.no
furuli at online.no
Sat Sep 6 02:56:31 EDT 2003
Dear list-memebers,
We should remember that Jesus probably did not speak Greek when he
uttered the words that we find in Matthew 16:18, but rather Hebrew or
Aramaic. Any distinction or similarity between PETROS and PETRA
should therefore take the Semitic background into account. (I use a
"popular" Hebrew transcription below in order to help those who do
not know Hebrew)
The Modern Hebrew New Testament has KIPPA (a rock mass) for PETROS
and HATSSUR HAZZE (a rock or boulder) for PETRA.
Delitzsch' Hebrew New Testament has PETROS for PETROS and HATSSUR
HAZZE for PETRA.
That the authors of both NT's understood the words to have a
different references does not tell us much about a possible
difference between PETROS and PETRA, but it indicates that a
difference is possible in a Semitic context. Matthew's task was to
translate the words of Jesus, and to choose the Greek words that best
could convey a similarity or a difference.
A general starting point in lexical semantics can be that a
difference in morphology signals a difference in meaning. This is a
synchronic principle, and when we try to fix the meaning of words
through time (a diachronic study) we sometimes/often discover that
words with a different morphology are used similarly. The words
PETROS and PETRA could have started out as having different
references/meanings and then this could have been conflated through
time. However, realizing that words signal concepts in the minds of
living people and that words with a different morphology signal
different concepts, we also realize that "synonyms" do not mean
exactly the same. But synonyms are words that signal different
concepts, but these words are in many contexts *used* similarly.
Therefore, to say that PETROS and PETRA mean exactly the same thing,
or that they have exactly the same reference in all instances, is a
bold claim.
When Matthew chose two different Greek words to translate the words
of Jesus, most likely he had a difference in mind (remember he
translated into a language that was not his mother tongue). Something
which points in the same direction is the use of the demonstrative
TAUTHi. For a Hebrew mind it would be strange ( if not completely
unlikely) to use a demonstrative together with a noun with one
morphology whose antecedent was a noun with another morphology. I
think that would be strange for the Greek mind as well. So different
references for PETROS and PETRA is likely, as I see it.
Best regards
Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo
>While that distinction does exist, remember also that Jesus could
>not have called Peter "Petra" without calling him a girl.
>
>
>
>"Invariably exacerbating and complicated verbage consistently
>effects in me repulsion of prolific proportions."
>
>
>
>
>>From: "Frankie Gonzalez" <FGONZALEZ29 at carolina.rr.com>
>>To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
>>Subject: [B-Greek] petros and petras
>>Date: Thu, 4 Sep 2003 23:39:55 -0400
>>
>>This translates the Greek word pe´tra (feminine gender), which
>>designates a mass of rock (Mt 7:24, 25; 27:51, 60; Lu 6:48; 8:6,
>>13; Re 6:15, 16) and therefore differs from pe´tros (masculine
>>gender and employed as a proper name, Peter), meaning "piece of
>>rock."
>>
>>In Jesus' illustration of the sower, the Greek adjective pe·tro´des
>>(related to the noun pe´tros) is used to describe the rocky places
>>upon which some of the seed fell. (Mt 13:3-5, 20) Pe´tros is used
>>as a proper name, "Peter." (Joh 1:42) On the meaning of this term
>>Vine's Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words (1981,
>>Vol. 4, p. 76) remarks: "Petros denotes a piece of a rock, a
>>detached stone or boulder, in contrast to petra, a mass of rock."
>>Word Studies in the New Testament says about pe´tros: "In classical
>>Greek the word means a piece of rock, as in Homer, of Ajax throwing
>>a stone at Hector, . . . or of Patroclus grasping and hiding in his
>>hand a jagged stone."-By M. Vincent, 1957, Vol. I, p. 91.
>>
>>---
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list