[B-Greek] New to list - a question
B. Keith Brumley
bkbrumley at yahoo.com
Wed Sep 17 11:10:52 EDT 2003
Thanks Brent, for your reply.
I've looked at the references (but don't have Lucian to check). I have also read the ABD article recently but Porter (Dict. of NT Background, pp. 711-719) calls into question some of Matthew's conclusions re: the patristic aversion to instruments being based on synagogue non-usage or mystery cult use.
I've also looked into the pairing of YALLW and ADW in the LXX (Psa. 32:15; 56:8; 67:5,33; 97:4; 103:33; 107:2; 143:9; and 104:2). It seems to me that the terms are synonomous to a real degree and, with Paul quoting often from the LXX in his letters, perhaps this is what is going on in the Eph. 5:19 passage? I.e., if ADW is used in the sense of "sing w/ instrumental accompaniment" then even if YALLW primarily meant w/o instruments at this time (which you question, I understand), then where YALLW may restrict the practice of instrumental accompaniment, ADW permits it?
Your thoughts?
Grace & Peace,
Keith Brumley
Hillsdale, MI
Brent Hudson <brent at riveroflifembchurch.com> wrote:
BAGD states that YALLW was still used in the sense of 'pluck' or 'play' (a stringed instrument) in the 2nd century AD (Lucian, Parasite 17). Josephus' Antiquities 11.67 uses YALLW for instrumental music. I only state this to moderate your claim that ..."YALLW is used of vocal music only (w/o accompinament of instruments)".
As for ADW, this word is used in Ex 15.21 (LXX). Here Miriam is using the tambourine while she implores the people "AISWMEN TWi KURIWi..."
Anyhow, it doesn't seem to violate either word to be used in conjunction with musical instruments. It seems to me that the reason the early church avoided musical accompaniment was due to synagogue traditions and the desire to be distinct from the mystery cults of the time (cf., Victor Matthews, "Music in the NT" ABD, 4:934).
Brent Hudson
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