[B-Greek] YALLW and ADW
Doug Hoxworth
dhoxworth at charter.net
Wed Sep 17 15:52:40 EDT 2003
yeah that's what i was thinking as i've been following
this thread. the terms themselves do not appear to have
anything to say about whether or not it is acapella or
with instrumentation. so to argue either inclusion or
exclusion of instrumental accompaniment based upon the
word alone is to commit the etymological fallacy or
something. it seems to me that this is an issue that can
only be decided upon by the context that the words are
used in and not by the words themselves.
as to whether they are synonymns or not, perhaps they can
be used as synonymns in some contexts, but as Eph 5 seems
to show there is some distinction (i.e., they are not
synonymns here). and again, i think it is a fallacy to
read into either of the terms that one is with instruments
and one is not. this is something that it seems can only
be supplied by context and not the mere appearance of the
word.
On Wed, 17 Sep 2003 16:26:00 -0300
"Brent Hudson" <brent at riveroflifembchurch.com> wrote:
>I guess my point would be that that neither ShYR or ADW
>have anything to say about whether the 'singing' is
>acapella or with instrumentation -- just like the English
>"sing" does not have that semantic information encoded
>within it. It may always refer to the 'voice' but that's
>all. I can't 'sing' a guitar or 'sing' a beat (cf., ADW)
>but that doesn't mean that some instrument is not
>accompanying my singing (so Ex 15.21).
>
>In short, I don't think either YALLW and ADW tell us
>whether there is instrumental accompaniment or not. ADW
>in the LXX may refer to 'singing' and not 'playing' but
>it says nothing about whether someone is 'playing' with
>the 'singing' nor does it imply that there is no
>"playing" with the "singing". I don't think that
>information is encoded in the term.
>
>Thoughts??
>
>Brent Hudson
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