[B-Greek] I Tim 2:14 and GEGONEN

Doug Hoxworth dhoxworth at charter.net
Fri Sep 19 18:03:04 EDT 2003


><Eric>
>Any help?

<doug>
i'm still not exactly sure what you are trying to ask. i'm 
not sure whether you are asking whether the Greek is 
aorist or whether you are asking if it would best to 
translate the perfect GEGONEN with an english 
aoristic/past tense rather than perfect (e.g., has 
fallen/become). if it is morphologically perfect (which it 
is), then i don't know how it can be an aorist. perhaps it 
is best translated this way, but i don't know. there is 
more to the text that i can't figure out.

i don't know if this will help but here's what Vincent 
says:

Was in the transgression - The King James Version misses 
the force of GEGONEN. GINESQAI EN often signifies the 
"coming or falling into" a condition, as &#65279;Acts 
12:11&#65279;; &#65279;22:17&#65279;; &#65279;Rev. 
1:10&#65279;; &#65279;1 Cor. 2:3&#65279;; &#65279;2 Cor. 
3:7&#65279;; &#65279;1 Thess. 2:5&#65279;. Render "hath 
fallen into transgression."

rogers and rogers "new linguistic and exegetical key to 
the greek NT" says:

GEGONEN - perf. ind. act. GINOMAI to become. Perf. 
expresses an abiding state (Guthrie).



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