[B-Greek] I Tim 2:14 and GEGONEN
Doug Hoxworth
dhoxworth at charter.net
Fri Sep 19 18:03:04 EDT 2003
><Eric>
>Any help?
<doug>
i'm still not exactly sure what you are trying to ask. i'm
not sure whether you are asking whether the Greek is
aorist or whether you are asking if it would best to
translate the perfect GEGONEN with an english
aoristic/past tense rather than perfect (e.g., has
fallen/become). if it is morphologically perfect (which it
is), then i don't know how it can be an aorist. perhaps it
is best translated this way, but i don't know. there is
more to the text that i can't figure out.
i don't know if this will help but here's what Vincent
says:
Was in the transgression - The King James Version misses
the force of GEGONEN. GINESQAI EN often signifies the
"coming or falling into" a condition, as Acts
12:11; 22:17; Rev.
1:10; 1 Cor. 2:3; 2 Cor.
3:7; 1 Thess. 2:5. Render "hath
fallen into transgression."
rogers and rogers "new linguistic and exegetical key to
the greek NT" says:
GEGONEN - perf. ind. act. GINOMAI to become. Perf.
expresses an abiding state (Guthrie).
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