[B-Greek] John 3:36
Mike Dewus
dewus at bluemarble.net
Fri Sep 19 18:01:48 EDT 2003
BlankhO PISTEUWN EIS TON UION EXEI ZWHN AIWNION; hO DE APEIQWN TW UIW OUK
OYETAI ZWHN, ALL H ORGH TOU QEOU MENEI EP AUTON.
Hi, I was wondering if I could get someone's opinion as to (1) why the
author used APEIQWN in the second part of the verse and not simply ou with
the word PISTEUWN-- the word they used earlier in the verse; in other words,
is the author deliberately trying to do more than negate PISTEUWN and inject
a different thought with the subsequent use of APEIQWN; I realize the words
are closely related to one another (i.e., PISTEUW is derived from PISTIS
which is derived from PEIQW [I hope that derivation chain is correct]).
I've checked several translations for the verse itself and there is some
disagreement (hence my frustration) based on the interpretation of APEIQWN,
which some render as not believing; some as not obeying in these various
translations. The range of definitions I've found as possibilities for the
word are: not-persuading, complying, believing, obeying). (2) Is it
reasonable to assume that the dative TW UIW might argue for the believing
rather than obeying rendition, as it seems to makes more sense in context?
Thanks in advance.
kind regards, Mike Dewus
dewus at bluemarble.net
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list