[B-Greek] I Tim 2:14 and GEGONEN
Doug Hoxworth
dhoxworth at charter.net
Sun Sep 21 17:27:48 EDT 2003
><Eric>
>...and 2) there is not, to me, a contextual requirement to interpret GEGONEN, a perfect, as an aorist here...I don't think that morphology always must rigidly dictate the contextual aspect of the verb.
<doug>
i now see what you're saying. i think that it may go back
to a usage/meaning of the word GINOMAI. when we read the
perfect form of GINOMAI in the Greek are we to understand
that it has an aoristic or undefined aspect to it? is
there any focus whatsoever on the aspect or is it really
undefined?
so the question here is by using the perfect form does
paul/the Holy Spirit wish to communicate the present
results/effects of that action or is it just undefined. i
personally don't see anything contextually that would
override its morphology or that would indicate that
undefined action is what is being communicated here.
perhaps another way to ask the question is to ask why
would paul have used the perfect here and not the aorist
form if he wanted to communicate aoristic aspect? if he
could have used either, why did he pick the perfect form?
to me, it seems that he uses the perfect becuase he's
relating a past event (the Fall) to a present situation
(women teachers in 1 Tim). in other words, he's not just
recounting some historical story without interest as to
how it affects his readers.
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list