[B-Greek] I Tim 2:14 and GEGONEN

Doug Hoxworth dhoxworth at charter.net
Sun Sep 21 17:27:48 EDT 2003


><Eric>
>...and 2) there is not, to me, a contextual requirement to interpret GEGONEN, a perfect, as an aorist here...I don't think that morphology always must rigidly dictate the contextual aspect of the verb.

<doug>
i now see what you're saying. i think that it may go back 
to a usage/meaning of the word GINOMAI. when we read the 
perfect form of GINOMAI in the Greek are we to understand 
that it has an aoristic or undefined aspect to it? is 
there any focus whatsoever on the aspect or is it really 
undefined?

so the question here is by using the perfect form does 
paul/the Holy Spirit wish to communicate the present 
results/effects of that action or is it just undefined. i 
personally don't see anything contextually that would 
override its morphology or that would indicate that 
undefined action is what is being communicated here.

perhaps another way to ask the question is to ask why 
would paul have used the perfect here and not the aorist 
form if he wanted to communicate aoristic aspect? if he 
could have used either, why did he pick the perfect form? 
to me, it seems that he uses the perfect becuase he's 
relating a past event (the Fall) to a present situation 
(women teachers in 1 Tim). in other words, he's not just 
recounting some historical story without interest as to 
how it affects his readers.



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