[B-Greek] First Corinthians 14:18

Mark Wilson emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Wed Sep 24 13:48:29 EDT 2003


Iver:

You wrote:

------
>The Greek
>text must mean (a) "speak more in tongues than you all" rather than (b)
>"speak in more tongues than you all".
-------

Despite our theological differences, I am quite in agreement with you here! 
The passage should read "speak more in tongues than you all." Or, as I have 
suggested, "speak more in languages than you all." And all I intended to 
argue, unsuccessfully, was that this is NOT a reference to Paul speaking 
more FREQUENTLY in tongues. That is how I understood Mitch's question. What 
I am saying is that the clause "speak more in tongues than you all" MEANS 
that Paul speaks in far more languages (your tongues) than do the 
Corinthians. I respect your attempts to see some private tongue or whatever, 
but I just don't see Paul discussing such a phenomena in this Corinthian 
correspondence (at least not in any positive way). What Waldo suggested, 
that Isaiah must be taken into consideration, if nothing else, should help 
us define the nature of GLWSSA here in this passage. Paul explicity appeals 
to Isaiah for the points he is trying to make.

I thought I said this with my last post. When you indicated what MALLON 
modified LALW, I said:  "It does modify speaking, of course, but that says 
nothing as to whether or not the speaking is look upon with frequency or 
number of languages." And then I pointed out the plural. I made no attempt 
to argue any "technical" language here.

Okay, end of rambling. And as always, Iver, it's nice to interact with you! 
(And I would never suggest that my knowledge of Greek comes close to yours.)

Mark Wilson

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