[B-Greek] singular adj w/ plural noun

Stuart Wolf largopt at tampabay.rr.com
Wed Sep 24 16:33:18 EDT 2003


This could be a simple question, but why does Mark use a singular 
adjective to describe a plural noun? In Mk 7:5, "with unclean hands" is 
koinais chersin. 
Thanks in advance;
SW




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