[B-Greek] singular adj w/ plural noun

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed Sep 24 17:15:42 EDT 2003


At 4:33 PM -0400 9/24/03, Stuart Wolf wrote:
>This could be a simple question, but why does Mark use a singular
>adjective to describe a plural noun? In Mk 7:5, "with unclean hands" is
>koinais chersin.

he DOESN'T use a singular adjective to describe a plural noun. KOINAIS is
feminine plural dative as is the noun CERSIN which it qualifies. Perhaps
you're looking at it from the perspective of English, which doesn't inflect
adjectives so that they agree in number, gender, and case with their nouns.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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