[B-Greek] What was actually meant??
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Tue Apr 27 17:44:45 EDT 2004
Dear Danny,
> > In the Greek syntax the principle noun has to match with it`s
>case, number, and gender. So, my question is Did Christ said the cup
>was going to be poured out? and fi it did, can any Greek teacher or
>professor assure me that? Is because, I just want proof that in
>Greek syntax it was like THAT. I`m not going to believe that the Cup
>actually was going to be poured out, but i just need ``Triple``
>prove. Thanks a lot, I appriciated.
HH: The most relevant passages are Luke 22:20; Mark 14:24; and
Matthew 26:28. An easy one to check is Matthew 26:28:
Matt. 26:28 This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for
many for the forgiveness of sins.
Here the participle "poured out" is EKXUVVOMENON and is neuter,
singular, nominative. It modifies the noun "blood," or hAIMA, which
is also neuter, singular, nominative. The word covenant (DIAQHKHS) is
feminine, singular, genitive.
A. T. Robertson says about the participle:
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/RobertsonsWordPictures/rwp.cgi?book=mt&chapter=026&verse=028&next=029&prev=026
"A prophetic present passive participle. The act is symbolized by the
ordinance."
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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