[B-Greek] Re: use of "lord" in NT

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Thu Apr 29 09:31:04 EDT 2004


Whereas "WT group" is non-trinitarian, for the record it should be noted that 
it does not advocate that "My Lord and my God!" (John 20:28) should be taken 
as in reference to the Father, but as a reference to the risen Lord Jesus 
Christ.

Solomon Landers

In a message dated 04/28/2004 5:14:56 PM Pacific Daylight Time, 
KwonO at upstate.edu writes:

> As you pointed out again 'Thomas said to Him', but a non-trinitarian view 
> (e.g. WT group) advocates that this phrase 'my Lord and my God' should be 
> taken as in reference to the Father (YHWH), being bolstered by the fact that it 
> is not vocative.  That is the reason I have reached to come up with my own 
> rendering which adds 'You are' to cleary show that Thomas was addressing it to 
> the risen Lord.
> 
> Thanks.
> 
> 
> Oun J Kwon, M.D.
> SUNY Uptate Med University
> Syracuse, NY
> 




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