[B-Greek] Re: use of "lord" in NT
Awohili at aol.com
Awohili at aol.com
Thu Apr 29 09:31:04 EDT 2004
Whereas "WT group" is non-trinitarian, for the record it should be noted that
it does not advocate that "My Lord and my God!" (John 20:28) should be taken
as in reference to the Father, but as a reference to the risen Lord Jesus
Christ.
Solomon Landers
In a message dated 04/28/2004 5:14:56 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
KwonO at upstate.edu writes:
> As you pointed out again 'Thomas said to Him', but a non-trinitarian view
> (e.g. WT group) advocates that this phrase 'my Lord and my God' should be
> taken as in reference to the Father (YHWH), being bolstered by the fact that it
> is not vocative. That is the reason I have reached to come up with my own
> rendering which adds 'You are' to cleary show that Thomas was addressing it to
> the risen Lord.
>
> Thanks.
>
>
> Oun J Kwon, M.D.
> SUNY Uptate Med University
> Syracuse, NY
>
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