[B-Greek] Acts 2:38 passive imperative

Herb Torres herb_torres at aristotle.net
Tue Aug 17 11:20:28 EDT 2004


I am having trouble conceptualizing this imperative passive verb in Acts
2:38. How can a command be directed toward something being done to
oneself. I am speaking of "be baptized". If it is in the imperative
mood, this suggest that something is to be done yet if it is a passive
verb it suggest that something is done to the subject. It seems contrary
how can a subject both do and have done to themself the same thing? I
mean how can a person follow the command to be baptized passively? I
simply do not understand an imperative passive verb. 
 
Thanks,
Herb Torres
 
 
 



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