[B-Greek] 1 John 2:6

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Aug 21 14:16:40 EDT 2004


At 1:59 PM -0400 8/21/04, Dony K. Donev wrote:
>----- Original Message -----
>From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
>> The infinitive MENEIN has the same subject (nominative) as LEGWN; this is
>a
>> form of indirect discourse wherein the subject is in the nominative and
>> unexpressed if it is identical with the verb introducing the indirect
>> discourse: so the phrase, hO LEGWN EN AUTWi MENEIN actually means, "The
>one
>> who says that he abides in him ..."
>
>So in this case would it be unexceptional for the translation to read, "He
>who says in him to remain ought ." where the one saying may be saying to
>others to remain in Him?

It would be exceptional in that (a) it's bad English, (b) it's misleading
in even hinting at the construction you are trying to put upon it: the
Greek text simply cannot be construed at meaning that "others should remain
in Him.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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