[B-Greek] 1 John 2:13

Eddie Mishoe edmishoe at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 25 14:02:54 EDT 2004


HH

It is not without precedence to have the definite
article function as a personal pronoun in Greek. It
may not be overly common with John, but I'm not sure
it can be ruled out without further consideration. To
say it is "wrong" would be a non-grammatical
appraisal. I do feel option 2 fits best, since option
3 introduces verbal static.

Eddie

--- "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard at ont.com>
wrote:

> Dear Dony,
> 
> >1 John 2:13 OTI EGNOKATE TON AP ARKEis
> >
> >
> >I am contemplating between several options here:
> >
> >
> >
> >because you have known Him from the beginning
> >
> >because you have known the One from the beginning
> >
> >because you have know Him who has been from the
> beginning
> 
> 
> HH: The first option is wrong. The last two seem
> essentially the same 
> and are valid.
> 
> 				Yours,
> 				Harold Holmyard
> ---
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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> 


=====
Eddie Mishoe
Pastor


		
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