[B-Greek] Mk 5:8 voc or nom?
gfsomsel at juno.com
gfsomsel at juno.com
Sun Dec 5 06:14:14 EST 2004
On Sat, 4 Dec 2004 16:21:40 -0600 Steven Lo Vullo <themelios at charter.net>
writes:
> On Dec 1, 2004, at 1:26 PM, gfsomsel at juno.com wrote:
>
> > Functionally this is a vocative though its form is nominative. It
> is
> > not
> > uncommon for the nominative to be used for the vocative.
>
> But George, the neuter nominative and vocative have the same form,
> so
> why consider it nominative when it is clearly a case of address?
> ============
>
> Steven Lo Vullo
> Madison, WI
_______________
Agreed, the form is the same. Consider, however, several facts:
1. A.T. Robertson notes "but in reality it is not a case at all."
2. Robertson also cites Farrer who conjectured that there was originally
no difference in form but that the difference was due to rapid
pronunciation.
3. Even in the time of Homer the nominative began to displace the
vocative.
4. In GoMk there are a number of clear vocatives, but these tend to
cluster around the words DIDASKALOS / DIDASKALE and KURIOS / KURIE.
5. There are clear instances of the use of the nominative form rather
than a vocative to function as a vocative in the GoMk such as Mk 14.36
ABBA, hO PATHR and 15.34 hO QEOS MOU, hO QEOS MOU.
I would therefore tend to prefer to call this a nominative form with a
vocative function.
george
gfsomsel
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