[B-Greek] Mk 5:8 voc or nom?

Steven Lo Vullo themelios at charter.net
Sun Dec 5 21:25:26 EST 2004


On Dec 5, 2004, at 4:18 PM, Carl W. Conrad wrote:

> Yes, Steven, I think you're right, and that's a reason why I am
> uncomfortable with the tagging practice; we've already seen that the
> tagging is wrong with regard to TI in Gal 3:6--I'm not sure what the
> occasion of that error in tagging was but it's curious that other 
> taggers
> have made the same error. For my part I really don't like tagging to be
> based on functional considerations rather than morphological. In 
> off-list
> correspondence I've been discussing comparable problems with the 
> tagging of
> "middle" and "passive" verb-forms as EITHER M or P in terms of
> interpretation of the function rather than in terms of morphology. 
> While it
> may be true that the parsing is useful primarily to those who cannot 
> read
> Greek very fluently and need to piece the elements of a text together
> syntactically, I personally think we ought to draw a distinction 
> between
> morphological analysis and syntactic analysis, and it seems to me that 
> the
> tagging wavers somewhat in practice between those two--and I doubt if 
> this
> is simply the case with tagging in Accordance--it seems to be the case 
> with
> the Friberg tagging too.

Yes, I also have noticed quite a bit of the inconsistency you note 
above.

>  I personally would prefer to describe the usage in
> Mk 5:8 TO PNEUMA TO AKAQARTON as nominative used for vocative--but in 
> FORM
> nominative, NOT vocative.

After further review (a little bit of football lingo there) I agree, as 
I mentioned in my last post to George.
============

Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI




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