[B-Greek] meaning of hOTI in John 5:28

Dan Starcevich dan.star at comcast.net
Tue Dec 21 09:15:37 EST 2004


I'd suggest that there are two indications that this hoti clause functions
appositionally. First is the parallel in v. 25 where the hoti clause is
appositional. Second, I understand v. 25 to be the antecedent of the touto
in v. 28. Since you can substitute the hoti clause with the antecedent and
it ends up making good sense it indicates that the clause in v. 28 is
probably appositional.  

Dan Starcevich
-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Beata Urbanek
Sent: Monday, December 20, 2004 1:50 PM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] meaning of hOTI in John 5:28

Dear All,

I'm new here (and not English native speaker, so be understaning, please),
but I hope I got what it's all about.

I have problems with deciding how the conjunction hOTI functions in J 5:28:
MH QAUMAZETE TOUTO hOTI ERCETAI hORA EN hE PANTES...
Is it typically a causal use, so the meaning is: "Do not marvel at this
because..." (and, consenquently, the reason of wonder is what preceded - so
we have anaphoric use of TOUTO).
Or is hOTI explicative and the sentence introduced by it is in apposition to
TOUTO and the meaning is "Do not marvel at this that ...". There are two
options here: TOUTO referring to the preceding and/or the following.

The third thing is if it is a negative question (as BDF suggests) or an
imperative. I opt for the latter.

Thanks for any help and ideas.

Beata Urbanek
Poland
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