[B-Greek] Pink
Eric Weiss
papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Tue Dec 21 16:46:05 EST 2004
John Fincher wrote:
> This is my first post, so please be patient with me. I have an
> exposition of John by AW Pink, and I've always wondered about the
> following reference. He says that the word for "was" is ITO in 1:1 and
> 1:2. Every Greek text I've seen has HN. Does anyone know what text
> Pink used, or run across this before?
I suspect A.W. Pink has mistakenly been reading from a MODERN
GREEK New Testament. The Modern Greek version of John 1:1
reads:
EN ARCH HTO O LOGOS, KAI O LOGOS HTO PARA TW QEW,
KAI QEOS HTO O LOGOS. OUTOS HTO EN ARCH PARA TW
QEW.
Since Modern Greek pronouns the H (eta) as "ee," this would be
pronounced like "eeto" or "ito" in English.
Of course, you don't want to be reading from a Modern Greek version
of the NT, as it would be a translation, and not the Greek text in which
the NT was written. John 1:1-2 in the Koine/Hellenistic/1st-Century
Greek New Testament reads:
EN ARCHi HN hO LOGOS, KAI hO LOGOS HN PROS TON QEON,
KAI QEOS HN hO LOGOS. hOUTOS HN EN ARCHi PROS TON
QEON.
That is why all your sources correctly say HN, not "ito."
It took me awhile to find a Modern Greek NT to verify this, but I found
one online through The Sword Project:
http://www.crosswire.org/index.jsp
Eric S. Weiss
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