[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Mon Dec 27 14:11:13 EST 2004
At 02:01 PM 12/27/2004, you wrote:
>There is an aorist imperative in this verse, GENHQHTW, translated with an
>active sense - "become". There are 8 other aorist uses of imperatives of
>this verb in the NT (all obviously deponent) but they seem to hold mostly
>a middle or passive sense (Matt. 6:10; 8:13; 9:29; 15:28; 26:42; Acts
>1:20; Rom. 11:9; 1 Co. 3:18) other than the last one. Would one be
>justified in seeing this passage as more middle or passive, and less active?
The verbal form is indeed passive imperative. It is imperative because a
command; hence, it must be understood in an active sense (since its not
really possible to command an act and then do so in such a way that the
act-or is passive). At any rate, the form is passive, as already
mentioned- but it is originally a middle / passive verb and hence while
passive in form it can indeed be active in function; as it is here.
Best
Jim
++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest Biblical Studies Resources
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com Biblical Theology Weblog
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