[B-Greek] John 1:1
John Fincher
jcfincher at charter.net
Tue Dec 28 17:18:46 EST 2004
Thank you for your instruction, it is helpful! I am lower than a novice when it comes to Greek grammar. I may be too much of a beginner to be in this forum. I hope I'm not lowering it's standard or purpose. I am enjoying it, but perhaps I need to just lurk.
Humbly,
John Fincher
>
> From: Doug Hoxworth <doughoxworth at yahoo.com>
> Date: 2004/12/28 Tue PM 05:06:28 EST
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] John 1:1
>
> >><John>
> >>Is there any significance, then, for hO LOGOS in
> John 1:1 being a masculine noun?
>
> ><Jim>
> > The noun is masculine in form and thus it's to be
> expected that it would occur in that form. So, no,
> there is no significance.
>
> <Doug>
> It might be important to mention to John (in case he
> may not be aware of this fact) that nouns are
> typically found in only one gender (it is adjectives
> that change gender in accordance with what they
> modify). So it may be helpful to point out to John
> that since there is not a feminine form of LOGOS (at
> least that I know of) there is therefore zero
> significance to it being a masculine noun--for there
> is no other way that it CAN occur (at least that I
> know of).
>
> Doug Hoxworth
> Luther Rice Seminary
>
>
>
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