[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15"

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Fri Dec 31 15:11:42 EST 2004


At 03:04 PM 12/31/2004, you wrote:

Just one small observation:
Charles opines----


>As to theory: a theory is only as good as its specific application to a
>particular word. If your grammatical rules will not fit GENHQHHTE then it
>becomes an exception to the rule and the rule does not apply.

There is not a single rule in Greek or any other language that isn't broken 
by intelligent, gifted, articulate writers.  You seem to be suggesting that 
authors of the NT always used the correct grammatical construction.  Not 
so.  At all.  Read Revelation.  It's simply dreadful from a grammatical 
point of view but its still meaningful and intelligible.


>And so my contention is that GENHQHHTE is passive.

Indeed- it is your contention.  But bending usage to conform to a rule does 
not necessarily = correct translation or exegesis.  I recall what Rick 
Spencer, my honored teacher at Seminary said one day in a class on the 
Epistle to the Hebrews- "Students, we are not washed in the blood of the 
subjunctive mood".

>The rendering of the
>concept from the Greek to the English is not quite as simple.

But it really is.  Given the proper vocabulary, it is indeed not only 
possible but perfectly simple (in the Occam-ian sense of the word) to 
translate Greek into any receptor language.


>Charles D. Rempel
>30 year student
>Without Portfolio

This still confuses me.

Best

Jim


++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD

http://web.infoave.net/~jwest Biblical Studies Resources
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com Biblical Theology Weblog





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