[B-Greek] AGAPE in the NT
Jody Barnard
jbnard at yahoo.co.uk
Thu Feb 5 08:43:25 EST 2004
--- David Bielby <dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org>
wrote: > In the GNT can someone have AGAPAW for an
inanimate
> object (or does the way
> AGAPAW appears in the NT allow for this application?
> Is it correct to say
> that AGAPAW does not occur in the NT without at
> least an inference or a
> direct expression that it is coming from God either
> to or through a man?
>
> Is it correct to say that PHILEW comes only from men
> and never from God?
>
> David Bielby
> Pastor
> VCF of B/N
> dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
> www.bloomingtonvineyard.org
>
David,
AGAPAW can be used for the pharisees love of places of
honour (Lk. 11:43), thier love of praise from men (Jn.
12:43) and Balaams love of unrighteousness (2 Peter
2:15).
PHILEW can be used for the Father's love for the Son
(Jn 5:20), his love for the disciples (16:27) and
Jesus' love for Lazarus (11:36).
Although AGAPAW and PHILEW encompass slightly
different semantic spheres there is enough overlap in
their meanings that means they can often be used
interchangeably. Your comments imply that there is a
special Divine love intrinsic to the word AGAPAW, this
is NOT the case. I would recommend Carson's excellent
little book 'Exegetical Falacies' which has a good
article on this and related issues.
Jody Barnard
>
> ---
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