[B-Greek] AGAPAO in the NT

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Feb 5 19:23:36 EST 2004


At 3:49 PM -0600 2/5/04, Daniel Gleason wrote:
>Carl Conrad: For what it's worth, I think it should be noted regarding the
>"beloved
>disciple" that the verb involved there is FILEW:
>
>John 20:2 TRECEI OUN KAI ERCETAI PROS SIMWNA PETRON KAI PROS TON ALLON
>MAQHTHN hON EFILEI hO IHSOUS.
>
>Thank you Carl.
>I was restricting my earlier post to agape in John 21 not the entire NT. I
>should have stated that before.
>Re the beloved disciple and the word agape ... I was referring to John 21:7
>"hO MAQHTHS EKEIVOS hON HGAPA hO IHSOUS" and to John 21:20 "TON MAQHTHN hON
>HGAPA hO IHSOUS." In John 21, I think the beloved disciple is linked with
>the word AGAPAW rather than FILEW.
>
>My intention was to propose that the author uses the words "agape" and "of
>John" in John 21:15-17 as an hermetic literary device to conclude the gospel
>with the beloved disciple. John was the first person to "testify" in the
>gospel (Jn 1:6-7} and perhaps the same or another John testifies to end the
>gospel because "we know that his testimony is true" (Jn 21:23). Perhaps
>there is some kind of link with "love" (agape), John, and "true testimony"?

So are you, or are you NOT, saying that hO MAQHTHS EKEINOS hON HGAPA hO
IHSOUS in Jn 21:7 is making a DIFFERENT affirmation about Jesus feeling for
this disciple than is made in Jn 20:2 TON ALLON MAQHTHN hON EFILEI hO
IHSOUS?

In your first post you were asking questions about the relationship between
Peter and the BD, who, as you rightly say is "unnamed" even if so many take
it for granted that the BD is John. But our concern here is fundamentally
and foremost about the Greek text, not background questions.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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