[B-Greek] OIDA
dhoxworth at charter.net
dhoxworth at charter.net
Tue Feb 10 11:11:11 EST 2004
><Mitch>
> This verb is said to be Perfect in form but Present in
> meaning. Even though Perfect tense verbs indicate past
> action in the Indicative, they seem to be translated
> as indicating a Present state. So, don't most Perfect
> verbs have a present meaning, not just OIDA?
<doug>
most grammars define the perfect as a completed event (therefore past event by implication) with effects in the present. so the present meaning is that its effects are felt in the present though the event is thought to have happened (or is completed) in the past.
Doug Hoxworth
MABTS Candidate at Luther Rice Seminary
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