[B-Greek] OIDA

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Tue Feb 10 11:46:42 EST 2004


In a message dated 2/10/2004 10:37:43 AM Eastern Standard Time, 
mitchlarramore at yahoo.com writes:
This verb is said to be Perfect in form but Present in
meaning. Even though Perfect tense verbs indicate past
action in the Indicative, they seem to be translated
as indicating a Present state. So, don't most Perfect
verbs have a present meaning, not just OIDA?
______

As any lexicon will tell you OIDA is the perfect from * EIDW which derives 
from the same source as the Latin video "to see".  As such it represents the 
present result of the event of having seen and therefore knowing.  This is 
generally considered to be the function of the perfect -- a past action with a 
present result.  I am reminded in this case of the passage from Numbers 24

The oracle of Balaam the son of Beor,
the oracle of the man whose eye is opened,
the oracle of him who hears the words of God,
who sees the vision of the Almighty.

Unfortunately, the perfect is not used here in the LXX though I still think 
it conveys the sense  -- he saw, he heard, therefore he knows.

gfsomsel



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