[B-Greek] D. B. Wallace on neuter plural subject with plural verb

J. Randal Matheny listas at alcanceweb.com
Sun Jan 4 15:28:27 EST 2004


De-lurking here. Maybe I need to lay this down and come 
back to it tomorrow, but, in the meantime, please give 
me a hand.

On page 400 of Wallace's Greek Grammar Beyond the 
Basics, I followed his text just fine, until the 
Robertson quote. Wallace says,

"However, when the author wants to _stress_ the 
individuality of each subject involved in a neuter 
plural subject, the plural verb is used."

No problem. Then he quotes Robertson, "'Usually a 
neuter plural in the N.T. that has a personal or 
collective meaning has a plural verb.'" (with footnote) 
The note cites exceptions to Robertson's rule, but 
doesn't seem to account for the opposite meaning I get 
between Wallace and Robertson. Robertson seems to say 
neuter plural subject plus plural verb equals 
collective meaning. (Is Wallace cueing in on "personal" 
meaning?)

I understand Wallace's point, but the Robertson quote 
seems to say the opposite. The juxtaposition of 
Wallace's affirmation and the Robertson quote is what 
has me

Scratching my head,

J. Randal Matheny
Sao Jose dos Campos, Brazil
Seminario Biblico Nacional





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