[B-Greek] D. B. Wallace on neuter plural subject with plural verb
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Sun Jan 4 15:53:02 EST 2004
In a message dated 1/4/2004 3:25:23 PM Eastern Standard Time,
listas at alcanceweb.com writes:
On page 400 of Wallace's Greek Grammar Beyond the
Basics, I followed his text just fine, until the
Robertson quote. Wallace says,
"However, when the author wants to _stress_ the
individuality of each subject involved in a neuter
plural subject, the plural verb is used."
No problem. Then he quotes Robertson, "'Usually a
neuter plural in the N.T. that has a personal or
collective meaning has a plural verb.'" (with footnote)
The note cites exceptions to Robertson's rule, but
doesn't seem to account for the opposite meaning I get
between Wallace and Robertson. Robertson seems to say
neuter plural subject plus plural verb equals
collective meaning. (Is Wallace cueing in on "personal"
meaning?)
I understand Wallace's point, but the Robertson quote
seems to say the opposite. The juxtaposition of
Wallace's affirmation and the Robertson quote is what
has me
Scratching my head,
________
Yes, Wallace subsumes this under the category of "A Neuter Plural Subject
with Singular Verb" and seems to indicate that whereas this indicates that the
subject is taken as a collective *** the exception (or different usage) *** that
you have cited lays stress on the individual. Note, however, how he
references Robertson
"Robertson, Grammar, 403. This is *** not always the case, *** however;
sometimes even a personal plural subject in the neuter takes a singular verb "
Robertson's point was that Koine has abandoned the classical usage here ***
and there are exceptions ****. On the following page Robertson states,
"But the only rule on the matter that is true in the N.T. Greek is the rule
of liberty."
gfsomsel
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