[B-Greek] D. B. Wallace on neuter plural subject with plural verb

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Sun Jan 4 15:53:02 EST 2004


In a message dated 1/4/2004 3:25:23 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
listas at alcanceweb.com writes:
On page 400 of Wallace's Greek Grammar Beyond the 
Basics, I followed his text just fine, until the 
Robertson quote. Wallace says,

"However, when the author wants to _stress_ the 
individuality of each subject involved in a neuter 
plural subject, the plural verb is used."

No problem. Then he quotes Robertson, "'Usually a 
neuter plural in the N.T. that has a personal or 
collective meaning has a plural verb.'" (with footnote) 
The note cites exceptions to Robertson's rule, but 
doesn't seem to account for the opposite meaning I get 
between Wallace and Robertson. Robertson seems to say 
neuter plural subject plus plural verb equals 
collective meaning. (Is Wallace cueing in on "personal" 
meaning?)

I understand Wallace's point, but the Robertson quote 
seems to say the opposite. The juxtaposition of 
Wallace's affirmation and the Robertson quote is what 
has me

Scratching my head,
________

Yes, Wallace subsumes this under the category of "A Neuter Plural Subject 
with Singular Verb" and seems to indicate that whereas this indicates that the 
subject is taken as a collective *** the exception (or different usage) *** that 
you have cited lays stress on the individual.  Note, however, how he 
references Robertson

"Robertson, Grammar, 403. This is *** not always the case, *** however; 
sometimes even a personal plural subject in the neuter takes a singular verb "

Robertson's point was that Koine has abandoned the classical usage here *** 
and there are exceptions ****.  On the following page Robertson states,

"But the only rule on the matter that is true in the N.T. Greek is the rule 
of liberty."

gfsomsel



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