[B-Greek] Comparison of EIS with PROS

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed Jan 14 19:30:17 EST 2004


At 6:21 PM -0500 1/14/04, <dhoxworth at charter.net> wrote:
>><Carl>
>>It might have been easier if you'd indicated that in the first place:
>
><doug>
>sorry. my question was specific but was really more general than just that
>particular passage. i wanted to know in general, when not referring to
>motion, whether there was any real distinction between using PROS as
>opposed to (or in conjunction with) EIS.
>
>><Carl>
>>I don't think there's an ounce of difference between PROS and EIS in
>>these three instances: I'd translate them all into "for" in English and
>>understand them as indicating purpose.
>
><doug>
>then why use PROS instead of EIS? if they are perfectly synonomous here,
>then why isn't only PROS or only EIS used? i just wonder what the basis is
>for saying there isn't an ounce of difference or a basis for explaining
>why the different prepositions are used and what the particular nuance is
>for each (in general, and specifically in Eph 4:12). thanks for your help.

I'm sorry if this isn't helpful but I honestly believe that this author is
not exactly the most articulate writer of Greek in the GNT. Perhaps it is
only my opinion, but I say that if PROS here is equivalent to "six," then
EIS here is equivalent to "half a dozen." I think that KJV's
Elizabethan/Jacobean English is right on the money: "Eph. 4:12 For the
perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of
the body of Christ ..."

It really ought not to be supposed that every alternation of this sort
necesssarily implies a profound distinction or any distinction at all.
Agreed, the most careful authors will be careful to preserve a distinction
between words with overlapping senses, but there are times when an
alternation may be nothing more than rhetorical variation; I wouldn't want
to argue that this (Eph 4:12) is an instance of rhetorical
inconcinnity--although it might be. At any rate, I'd say the burden of
demonstrating that PROS in Eph 4:12 means something OTHER than what EIS
means in the same verse must lie upon him/her who thinks that there IS such
a difference. You're asking what IS the difference; I'm saying that I DON'T
think there's any difference in this instance.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



More information about the B-Greek mailing list